daughtry76
daughtry76
01-03-2018
Mathematics
contestada
why does 16 to the power of 0 equal 1?
Respuesta :
angicarl
angicarl
01-03-2018
16 to the power of 0 is one because any number to the 0 power is 1. This is because you aren't multiply 16 (or any number) by itself any amount of times.
Answer Link
AnimeBrainly
AnimeBrainly
01-03-2018
16^0 = 1 because
any number to the zero power is just the product of no numbers at all, which = 1.
hope this helps
Answer Link
VER TODAS LAS RESPUESTAS ( 72+ )
Otras preguntas
What’s the radius of a cone if the height is 12 and the volume is 36pi
Which of the following functions has the greatest y-intercept? f(x) x y −3 −27 −2 8 −1 −1 0 0 1 1 2 8 OR g(x) = 4 sin(4x) − 3 a) f(x) b) g(x) c) f(x) and g(x)
Why are plants unable to grow at the bottom of lakes?
How can communities aid in disease prevention? A. by providing vaccination education B. by reinforcing good hygiene habits at home C. by keeping up-to-date w
Electricity is the movement of _____ from one atom to another along a conductor.
The simple interest due on a 6-month loan of $2,500 is $125. What is the monthly payment on the loan? $2,625 $437.50 $20.83 $416.67
HELP i need this done
"i'm afraid of children my own age. they kill each other. did it always used to be that way? my uncle says no. six of my friends have been shot in the last year
Two workers produced 86 parts and the first one produced 8 more parts than the second one. How many parts did each worker produce?
Which most likely represents the process of dissolving carbon dioxide in soda?v
